This note provides a detailed explanation of key finance concepts, including risk management, capital budgeting, bond valuation, inventory management, and cost of capital. It is designed for BiM students to understand financial decision-making and its implications.
Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
Group "A"
Indicate whether the following statements are 'True' or 'False'. Support your answer with
[10 × 1 = 101
Finance is only concerned with raising of funds.
If the equity multiplier is 2, the debt ratio must be 0.5.
If we identify perfectly negative correlated assets, we can completely eliminate the risk.
Simple annual interest rate and effective annual interest rate become equal if interest compounds annually.
There is inverse relationship between market interest rate and value of bond.
If project are mutually exclusive, we can choose all the projects which have positive NPV,
Generally, cost of retained earnings is higher than cost of external equity.
NPV is a better capital budgeting technique than IRR.
If a firm places 24 times order in a year with Rs 300 costs per order placed, total cost associated to the ordering of inventory is Rs 3,600.
10. If ordering frequency is less than lead time of a firm, there is existence
False – Finance involves not only raising funds but also managing and allocating them efficiently through investment and financial decision-making.
True – The equity multiplier = Total Assets / Equity. If it is 2, then equity funds 50% of total assets, and the debt ratio is 0.5 (or 50%).
True – A correlation of -1 allows risk elimination through diversification. Gains in one asset offset losses in another.
True – Effective Annual Rate (EAR) considers compounding. When compounded annually, EAR = simple annual interest rate.
True – When interest rates rise, bond prices fall, and vice versa. This happens because bonds with fixed payments lose value when newer bonds offer higher yields.
False – Mutually exclusive projects require choosing the best alternative. Selecting all positive NPV projects is incorrect.
False – If ordering frequency is lower than lead time, there could be stockouts rather than goods in transit.
Group "B" 16 × 5 = 30]
Short Answer Questions:
Define business finance. Discuss the role of financial manager in an organizations.
Business finance refers to the management of funds and financial resources within an organization to ensure smooth operations, profitability, and growth. It involves planning, acquiring, managing, and controlling financial resources efficiently to meet the company's objectives. Business finance covers a wide range of activities, including investment decisions, capital budgeting, risk management, financial planning, and capital structure management.
A financial manager plays a critical role in ensuring that a company maintains financial stability and achieves its strategic goals. The key responsibilities of a financial manager include:
Develops financial strategies to achieve business goals.
Prepares budgets and forecasts to ensure effective fund allocation.
Analyzes market trends to predict future financial conditions.
Determines the best investment opportunities to maximize returns.
Evaluates projects using capital budgeting techniques like Net Present Value (NPV), Internal Rate of Return (IRR), and Payback Period.
Ensures that investments align with the company's risk tolerance and financial objectives.
Decides the right mix of debt and equity financing for the business.
Balances leverage to minimize financial risk while maximizing profitability.
Determines the cost of capital and its impact on financial decision-making.
Identifies and mitigates financial risks such as market risk, credit risk, and liquidity risk.
Uses hedging techniques and insurance policies to protect the organization from unexpected losses.
Raises capital through equity financing, debt financing, or retained earnings.
Manages working capital by optimizing accounts receivable, accounts payable, and inventory.
Ensures efficient cash flow management to meet short-term and long-term obligations.
Enhances profitability by minimizing unnecessary expenses and improving operational efficiency.
Implements cost control measures to maintain financial health.
Analyzes financial statements to identify areas for improvement.
Decides the dividend payout ratio and whether to reinvest profits or distribute them to shareholders.
Ensures a balance between rewarding investors and retaining capital for future growth.
Ensures adherence to financial regulations, tax laws, and corporate governance.
Prepares financial reports and statements as per accounting standards.
Works with auditors and regulatory authorities to maintain transparency and compliance.
The financial manager acts as a strategic partner in an organization, ensuring that financial resources are used effectively to drive business success. By managing risks, optimizing investment decisions, and ensuring financial stability, the financial manager contributes to the long-term growth and sustainability of the company.
Solutions to the Given Questions
We are given the probability and returns for Stock A and Stock B in different economic conditions. We will compute:
The formula for Expected Return (E(R)E(R)):
E(R)=∑Pi×RiE(R) = \sum P_i \times R_i
where:
PiP_i = Probability of scenario
RiR_i = Return in that scenario
E(RA)=(0.4×10%)+(0.3×15%)+(0.3×20%)E(R_A) = (0.4 \times 10\%) + (0.3 \times 15\%) + (0.3 \times 20\%) E(RB)=(0.4×−10%)+(0.3×20%)+(0.3×30%)E(R_B) = (0.4 \times -10\%) + (0.3 \times 20\%) + (0.3 \times 30\%)
The variance formula:
σ2=∑Pi×(Ri−E(R))2\sigma^2 = \sum P_i \times (R_i - E(R))^2
The Standard Deviation (σ\sigma):
σ=σ2\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}
CV=σE(R)CV = \frac{\sigma}{E(R)}
This measures the risk per unit of return.
The Gordon Growth Model:
P0=D1r−gP_0 = \frac{D_1}{r - g}
where:
P0P_0 = Present stock price
D1D_1 = Dividend next year
rr = Required rate of return (15%)
gg = Growth rate (20% for 3 years, then 10%)
Dividend Yield=D1P0×100\text{Dividend Yield} = \frac{D_1}{P_0} \times 100
Given:
Coupon Rate = 6.5%
Time to Maturity = 10 years
Yield to Maturity (YTM) = 7%
Annual Coupon Payment:
C=Coupon Rate×Face Value=6.5%×1000=65C = \text{Coupon Rate} \times \text{Face Value} = 6.5\% \times 1000 = 65
Current Yield:
Current Yield=CCurrent Price\text{Current Yield} = \frac{C}{\text{Current Price}}
P=∑C(1+r)t+F(1+r)TP = \sum \frac{C}{(1 + r)^t} + \frac{F}{(1 + r)^T}
where:
CC = Coupon payment
FF = Face value (Rs 1000)
rr = YTM (7%)
TT = Time to maturity (10 years)
If YTM drops to 6%, the bond price increases because bond values move inversely with interest rates.
When YTM increases, bond price decreases.
When YTM decreases, bond price increases.
I will now calculate and display these values.
I have calculated the expected return, standard deviation, coefficient of variation, stock price, dividend yield, bond price at different YTMs, and current yield. You can review the results in the table provided. Let me know if you need further explanations or additional calculations!
| Long term debt to net worth | 0.5 to 1 |
| Total assets turnover | 2.5 times |
| Average collection period | 18 days |
| Inventory turnover | 9 times |
| Gross profit margin | 10% |
| Acid test ratio | 1 to 1 |
| Cash | Notes payable 100,000 | |
| Account receivable | Long term Debt ------ | |
| Inventory | -BHH-Sttl | Common stock 100,000 |
| Plant & Equipment | Retained earnings 100,000 | |
| Total Assets | Total Liabilities &
Equity - -----
|
Before diving into calculations, let’s break down the key financial ratios and their significance in analyzing a business’s financial health.
These ratios help us understand how efficiently a business is operating and provide insights into its liquidity, profitability, and debt structure.
1️⃣ Long-term Debt to Net Worth (0.5 to 1)
Shows how much long-term debt a company has compared to its equity (net worth).
Formula: Long-term Debt=0.5×Net Worth\text{Long-term Debt} = 0.5 \times \text{Net Worth}
2️⃣ Total Assets Turnover (2.5 times)
Measures how efficiently a company uses its assets to generate revenue.
Formula: Sales=Total Assets×Total Asset Turnover\text{Sales} = \text{Total Assets} \times \text{Total Asset Turnover}
3️⃣ Average Collection Period (18 days)
Tells how long customers take to pay after making a credit purchase.
Formula: Accounts Receivable=(Sales360)×Average Collection Period\text{Accounts Receivable} = \left(\frac{\text{Sales}}{360}\right) \times \text{Average Collection Period}
4️⃣ Inventory Turnover (9 times)
Indicates how fast inventory is sold and replaced.
Formula: Inventory=Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)Inventory Turnover\text{Inventory} = \frac{\text{Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)}}{\text{Inventory Turnover}}
5️⃣ Gross Profit Margin (10%)
Tells us how much profit a company makes after deducting the cost of goods sold.
Formula: COGS=Sales×(1−Gross Profit Margin)\text{COGS} = \text{Sales} \times (1 - \text{Gross Profit Margin})
6️⃣ Acid Test Ratio (1:1)
A liquidity ratio that checks if a company can pay short-term liabilities using only cash & accounts receivable (without selling inventory).
Formula: Cash=(Acid Test Ratio×Current Liabilities)−Accounts Receivable\text{Cash} = (\text{Acid Test Ratio} \times \text{Current Liabilities}) - \text{Accounts Receivable}
We are provided with some elements of the balance sheet but need to calculate the missing values using the given ratios.
Given:
Notes Payable (Short-term Liabilities) = Rs 100,000
Common Stock = Rs 100,000
Retained Earnings = Rs 100,000
Long-term Debt = ?
Inventory = ?
Accounts Receivable = ?
Cash = ?
Plant & Equipment = ?
Total Assets = ?
Total Liabilities & Equity = ?
Net Worth is the sum of Common Stock + Retained Earnings
Net Worth=100,000+100,000=200,000\text{Net Worth} = 100,000 + 100,000 = 200,000
Using Long-term Debt to Net Worth Ratio (0.5 to 1):
Long-term Debt=0.5×200,000=100,000\text{Long-term Debt} = 0.5 \times 200,000 = 100,000
Total Assets = Net Worth + Long-term Debt + Notes Payable
Total Assets=200,000+100,000+100,000=400,000\text{Total Assets} = 200,000 + 100,000 + 100,000 = 400,000
Using Total Asset Turnover Ratio (2.5 times):
Sales=400,000×2.5=1,000,000\text{Sales} = 400,000 \times 2.5 = 1,000,000
Using Gross Profit Margin (10%):
COGS=1,000,000×(1−0.10)=900,000\text{COGS} = 1,000,000 \times (1 - 0.10) = 900,000
Using Inventory Turnover (9 times):
Inventory=900,0009=100,000\text{Inventory} = \frac{900,000}{9} = 100,000
Using Average Collection Period (18 days):
Accounts Receivable=(1,000,000360)×18=50,000\text{Accounts Receivable} = \left(\frac{1,000,000}{360}\right) \times 18 = 50,000
Using Acid Test Ratio (1:1):
Cash=(1×100,000)−50,000=50,000\text{Cash} = (1 \times 100,000) - 50,000 = 50,000
Using Total Assets - (Cash + Accounts Receivable + Inventory)
\text{Plant & Equipment} = 400,000 - (50,000 + 50,000 + 100,000) = 200,000
\text{Total Liabilities & Equity} = 400,000
(✅ Matches Total Assets)
| Category | Amount (Rs) |
| Cash | 50,000 |
| Accounts Receivable | 50,000 |
| Inventory | 100,000 |
| Plant & Equipment | 200,000 |
| Total Assets | 400,000 |
| Notes Payable | 100,000 |
| Long-term Debt | 100,000 |
| Common Stock | 100,000 |
| Retained Earnings | 100,000 |
| Total Liabilities & Equity | 400,000 |
✅ Financial Ratios Help Analyze Business Health – They show how efficiently a company is operating.
✅ Balance Sheet Balances! – Total Assets = Total Liabilities + Equity always holds true.
✅ Understanding Cash Flow & Liquidity is Crucial – A business should have enough cash and accounts receivable to meet short-term liabilities.
✅ Inventory & Receivables Play a Key Role – These affect liquidity and overall financial stability.
15. Using the following information, complete the balance sheet.
Assume a 360 day year and all sales on credit
16. The following information for inventory purchased and storage cost has been provided fo he Marpha Apple Juice Company. Assume 50 weeks in a year
Annual demand are 180,000 units
Purchase price is Rs 2
Carrying cost is 50% of purchase price
Cost per order placed is Rs 400
Safety stock is Rs 10,000 units
Lead time is 1 week
What is the economic order quantity (EOQ)?
What is the optimal number of order to be placed?
At what inventory level should a reorder be made (ROL)?
Before we proceed, let's understand the key financial ratios and values provided:
1️⃣ Long-term Debt to Net Worth Ratio (0.5 to 1)
Long-term debt is 50% of net worth.
Formula: Long-term Debt=0.5×Net Worth\text{Long-term Debt} = 0.5 \times \text{Net Worth}
2️⃣ Total Assets Turnover (2.5 times)
Formula: Sales=Total Assets×2.5\text{Sales} = \text{Total Assets} \times 2.5
3️⃣ Average Collection Period (18 days)
Formula: Accounts Receivable=(Sales360)×18\text{Accounts Receivable} = \left(\frac{\text{Sales}}{360}\right) \times 18
4️⃣ Inventory Turnover (9 times)
Formula: Inventory=COGSInventory Turnover\text{Inventory} = \frac{\text{COGS}}{\text{Inventory Turnover}}
5️⃣ Gross Profit Margin (10%)
Formula: COGS=Sales×(1−Gross Profit Margin)\text{COGS} = \text{Sales} \times (1 - \text{Gross Profit Margin})
6️⃣ Acid Test Ratio (1:1)
Formula: Cash=(Acid Test Ratio×Current Liabilities)−Accounts Receivable\text{Cash} = (\text{Acid Test Ratio} \times \text{Current Liabilities}) - \text{Accounts Receivable}
Net Worth is the sum of Common Stock + Retained Earnings
Net Worth=100,000+100,000=200,000\text{Net Worth} = 100,000 + 100,000 = 200,000
Using Long-term Debt to Net Worth Ratio (0.5 to 1):
Long-term Debt=0.5×200,000=100,000\text{Long-term Debt} = 0.5 \times 200,000 = 100,000
Total Assets = Net Worth + Long-term Debt + Notes Payable
Total Assets=200,000+100,000+100,000=400,000\text{Total Assets} = 200,000 + 100,000 + 100,000 = 400,000
Using Total Asset Turnover Ratio (2.5 times):
Sales=400,000×2.5=1,000,000\text{Sales} = 400,000 \times 2.5 = 1,000,000
Using Gross Profit Margin (10%):
COGS=1,000,000×(1−0.10)=900,000\text{COGS} = 1,000,000 \times (1 - 0.10) = 900,000
Using Inventory Turnover (9 times):
Inventory=900,0009=100,000\text{Inventory} = \frac{900,000}{9} = 100,000
Using Average Collection Period (18 days):
Accounts Receivable=(1,000,000360)×18=50,000\text{Accounts Receivable} = \left(\frac{1,000,000}{360}\right) \times 18 = 50,000
Using Acid Test Ratio (1:1):
Cash=(1×100,000)−50,000=50,000\text{Cash} = (1 \times 100,000) - 50,000 = 50,000
Using Total Assets - (Cash + Accounts Receivable + Inventory)
\text{Plant & Equipment} = 400,000 - (50,000 + 50,000 + 100,000) = 200,000
\text{Total Liabilities & Equity} = 400,000
(✅ Matches Total Assets)
| Category | Amount (Rs) |
| Cash | 50,000 |
| Accounts Receivable | 50,000 |
| Inventory | 100,000 |
| Plant & Equipment | 200,000 |
| Total Assets | 400,000 |
| Notes Payable | 100,000 |
| Long-term Debt | 100,000 |
| Common Stock | 100,000 |
| Retained Earnings | 100,000 |
| Total Liabilities & Equity | 400,000 |
Let’s calculate EOQ, Number of Orders, and Reorder Level (ROL).
Annual Demand = 180,000 units
Purchase Price = Rs 2 per unit
Carrying Cost = 50% of purchase price
Ordering Cost per Order = Rs 400
Safety Stock = 10,000 units
Lead Time = 1 week
Weeks per Year = 50
EOQ=2×Annual Demand×Ordering CostCarrying Cost per unitEOQ = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times \text{Annual Demand} \times \text{Ordering Cost}}{\text{Carrying Cost per unit}}}
Using the given values:
EOQ=2×180,000×4001=12,000 unitsEOQ = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 180,000 \times 400}{1}} = 12,000 \text{ units}
Orders Per Year=Annual DemandEOQ\text{Orders Per Year} = \frac{\text{Annual Demand}}{EOQ} =180,00012,000=15 orders per year= \frac{180,000}{12,000} = 15 \text{ orders per year}
ROL=(Weekly Demand×Lead Time)+Safety Stock\text{ROL} = (\text{Weekly Demand} \times \text{Lead Time}) + \text{Safety Stock} =(180,00050×1)+10,000= \left(\frac{180,000}{50} \times 1\right) + 10,000 =3,600+10,000=13,600 units= 3,600 + 10,000 = 13,600 \text{ units}
| Metric | Value |
| Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) | 12,000 units |
| Optimal Orders Per Year | 15 orders |
| Reorder Level (ROL) | 13,600 units |
✅ Balance Sheet Always Balances! – Ensuring Total Assets = Total Liabilities & Equity is a fundamental check.
✅ EOQ Helps Minimize Costs – It ensures the best quantity to order reducing carrying & ordering costs.
✅ Reorder Level Prevents Stockouts – Ensuring the company never runs out of stock while keeping inventory optimized.
✅ Understanding Finance Helps in Business Success! 📈
By following a step-by-step approach, financial concepts become easier to understand. These calculations help businesses optimize their resources and improve decision-making! 💰📊
Group "C"
Comprehensive answer questions:
Read the following information and answer the questions given below:
2 × 10 = 20
| Year | Cash flow (Rs) |
| 0 | (2,000,000) |
| 1 | 800,000 |
| 2 | 700,000 |
| 650,000 | |
| 600,000 | |
| 5 | 800,000 |
Tara Transportation Pvt. Ltd. is considering running a tourist bus from Chitwan to Kathmandu. The company wants to evaluate whether this investment is financially viable based on three capital budgeting techniques:
✅ Payback Period (PP) – Measures how quickly the initial investment is recovered.
✅ Net Present Value (NPV) – Measures the profitability of the project by considering the time value of money.
✅ Internal Rate of Return (IRR) – Measures the rate at which the project breaks even in terms of NPV.
| Year | Cash Flow (Rs) |
| 0 | (2,000,000) |
| 1 | 800,000 |
| 2 | 700,000 |
| 3 | 650,000 |
| 4 | 600,000 |
| 5 | 800,000 |
Initial Investment (Year 0): Rs 2,000,000 (negative as it’s an outflow).
Required Rate of Return (Discount Rate for NPV & IRR): 10%.
Maximum Payback Period Accepted: 4 years.
The Payback Period tells us how long it takes to recover the initial investment.
Formula:
Payback Period=Years before full recovery+(Remaining Investment to RecoverCash Flow in Next Year)\text{Payback Period} = \text{Years before full recovery} + \left(\frac{\text{Remaining Investment to Recover}}{\text{Cash Flow in Next Year}}\right)
🔸 Step-by-step Recovery Calculation:
| Year | Cash Flow (Rs) | Cumulative Cash Flow (Rs) |
| 0 | (2,000,000) | (2,000,000) |
| 1 | 800,000 | (1,200,000) |
| 2 | 700,000 | (500,000) |
| 3 | 650,000 | 150,000 (Investment Recovered) |
| 4 | 600,000 | (Extra Recovery) |
The investment is fully recovered between Year 2 and Year 3.
Remaining amount to recover in Year 3=500,000\text{Remaining amount to recover in Year 3} = 500,000 Fractional Year=500,000650,000=0.77 years\text{Fractional Year} = \frac{500,000}{650,000} = 0.77 \text{ years} Payback Period=2+0.77=2.77 years≈2.8 years\text{Payback Period} = 2 + 0.77 = 2.77 \text{ years} \approx 2.8 \text{ years}
✅ Decision: ACCEPT (Since the payback period of 2.8 years is within the 4-year limit).
Net Present Value (NPV) measures the total profitability of the project by discounting future cash flows.
Formula:
NPV=∑Ct(1+r)t−C0NPV = \sum \frac{C_t}{(1 + r)^t} - C_0
Where:
CtC_t = Cash flow in year tt
rr = Discount rate (10%)
C0C_0 = Initial Investment (Rs 2,000,000)
tt = Year (1 to 5)
| Year | Cash Flow (Rs) | Discount Factor (10%) | Present Value (Rs) |
| 1 | 800,000 | 11.1\frac{1}{1.1} = 0.909 | 727,272 |
| 2 | 700,000 | 1(1.1)2\frac{1}{(1.1)^2} = 0.826 | 578,512 |
| 3 | 650,000 | 1(1.1)3\frac{1}{(1.1)^3} = 0.751 | 488,160 |
| 4 | 600,000 | 1(1.1)4\frac{1}{(1.1)^4} = 0.683 | 409,800 |
| 5 | 800,000 | 1(1.1)5\frac{1}{(1.1)^5} = 0.621 | 496,800 |
Total Present Value of Cash Inflows:
727,272+578,512+488,160+409,800+496,800=2,700,544727,272 + 578,512 + 488,160 + 409,800 + 496,800 = 2,700,544
NPV Calculation:
NPV=2,700,544−2,000,000=∗∗Rs700,684.88∗∗NPV = 2,700,544 - 2,000,000 = **Rs 700,684.88**
✅ Decision: ACCEPT (Since NPV > 0, the project is profitable).
The IRR is the discount rate that makes NPV = 0.
Using trial and error or financial calculator, we find:
IRR=23.21% (or 0.2321)IRR = 23.21\% \text{ (or 0.2321)}
Since IRR (23.21%) > Required Rate of Return (10%), the project is financially viable.
✅ Decision: ACCEPT (Since IRR is greater than the required return).
| Metric | Value | Decision |
| Payback Period | 2.8 years | ✅ Accept |
| NPV | Rs 700,684.88 | ✅ Accept |
| IRR | 23.21% | ✅ Accept |
✅ Payback Period Measures Risk – Since the initial investment is recovered within 4 years, the project is acceptable.
✅ NPV Measures Profitability – A positive NPV (Rs 700,684.88) indicates that the project will increase the company's value.
✅ IRR Measures Return – Since IRR (23.21%) is greater than the required rate of return (10%), the project is a good investment.
📢 Final Decision: Tara Transportation should run the tourist bus service from Chitwan to Kathmandu! 🚍💰
Current Date: January 1, 2021
First Deposit: Rs 1,000 on January 1, 2022
Interest Rate: 8% per year
Time Period: 3 years (From January 1, 2022, to January 1, 2025)
Compounding Methods:
✅ Annual Compounding
✅ Quarterly Compounding
✅ Four Equal Deposits of Rs 250 each year
We will calculate how much money will be in the account under different conditions.
The formula for Future Value (FV) with annual compounding is:
FV=P×(1+r)tFV = P \times (1 + r)^t
Where:
FVFV = Future Value
PP = Principal amount (Rs 1,000)
rr = Annual interest rate (8% or 0.08)
tt = Number of years (3 years: 2022 → 2025)
FV=1,000×(1.08)3FV = 1,000 \times (1.08)^3 FV=1,000×1.2597FV = 1,000 \times 1.2597 FV=∗∗Rs1,259.71∗∗FV = **Rs 1,259.71**
✅ Final Amount in Account (Annual Compounding): Rs 1,259.71
Interest is compounded every 3 months (4 times a year).
The formula for Future Value (FV) with quarterly compounding is:
FV=P×(1+rn)n×tFV = P \times \left(1 + \frac{r}{n}\right)^{n \times t}
Where:
FVFV = Future Value
PP = Principal amount (Rs 1,000)
rr = Annual interest rate (8% or 0.08)
nn = Number of times interest is compounded per year (4 times per year)
tt = Number of years (3 years)
FV=1,000×(1+0.084)4×3FV = 1,000 \times \left(1 + \frac{0.08}{4}\right)^{4 \times 3} FV=1,000×(1.02)12FV = 1,000 \times (1.02)^{12} FV=1,000×1.2682FV = 1,000 \times 1.2682 FV=∗∗Rs1,268.24∗∗FV = **Rs 1,268.24**
✅ Final Amount in Account (Quarterly Compounding): Rs 1,268.24
Instead of one deposit of Rs 1,000, now Rs 250 is deposited at the beginning of each year for 4 years (2022, 2023, 2024, 2025).
Each deposit earns interest for a different number of years.
The formula for Future Value of Annuity (FVA) with annual compounding is:
FVA=P×∑t=0n(1+r)n−tFVA = P \times \sum_{t=0}^{n} (1 + r)^{n-t}
Where:
PP = Annual deposit (Rs 250)
rr = Interest rate (8% or 0.08)
nn = Number of years (3 years)
Each Rs 250 deposit grows at different rates:
| Deposit Year | Deposit (Rs) | Time (Years Until 2025) | Future Value Calculation |
| 2022 | 250 | 3 | 250×(1.08)3=314.93250 \times (1.08)^3 = 314.93 |
| 2023 | 250 | 2 | 250×(1.08)2=292.50250 \times (1.08)^2 = 292.50 |
| 2024 | 250 | 1 | 250×(1.08)1=270.00250 \times (1.08)^1 = 270.00 |
| 2025 | 250 | 0 | 250×(1.08)0=250.00250 \times (1.08)^0 = 250.00 |
Total Future Value:
314.93+292.50+270.00+250.00=∗∗Rs1,126.53∗∗314.93 + 292.50 + 270.00 + 250.00 = **Rs 1,126.53**
✅ Final Amount in Account (4 Equal Deposits): Rs 1,126.53
We need to find an annual payment (Rs X) that results in the same final balance as (a) → Rs 1,259.71.
The formula to find Required Annual Payment (PP) is:
P=FV∑t=0n(1+r)n−tP = \frac{FV}{\sum_{t=0}^{n} (1 + r)^{n-t}}
Using the future value sum formula, the denominator is:
(1.08)3+(1.08)2+(1.08)1+(1.08)0=3.255(1.08)^3 + (1.08)^2 + (1.08)^1 + (1.08)^0 = 3.255
So the required annual payment:
P=1,259.713.255P = \frac{1,259.71}{3.255} P=∗∗Rs279.56∗∗P = **Rs 279.56**
✅ Each Payment Must Be Rs 279.56 to Match Rs 1,259.71 in 2025
| Scenario | Final Amount (Rs) |
| Annual Compounding (Rs 1,000 One-Time Deposit) | Rs 1,259.71 |
| Quarterly Compounding (Rs 1,000 One-Time Deposit) | Rs 1,268.24 |
| 4 Equal Deposits of Rs 250 per Year | Rs 1,126.53 |
| Required Annual Payment to Match (a) | Rs 279.56 |
✅ More Compounding → More Growth – Quarterly compounding results in a slightly higher final balance than annual compounding.
✅ Regular Deposits vs. One-Time Deposit – Four equal deposits grow slower because some amounts earn interest for a shorter time.
✅ Finding Equal Payments is Essential – We can adjust annual deposits to match a specific future value.
📢 Conclusion:
If you have a lump sum of Rs 1,000, invest it at once for maximum growth!
If you can only invest yearly, you need Rs 279.56 per year to match a one-time Rs 1,000 deposit in growth.